It seems that this question comes up when there is a property transfer, i.e. a buyer has expectations that did not cause a dispute between previous landowners/abutters. If that is correct, the new landowner should consider whether he did sufficient due diligence, or the existing landowner took advantage of the land transfer and moved his dock. My guess is, the "new" person made, or was "led" to make some assumptions that were not fully founded. These questions do not seem to arise until there is a property sale.
|